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Quick Skill Review Test for ISTQB Exam Q. 21 to 30

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Quick Skill Review Test for ISTQB Exam Q. 21 to 30

Objective Type / Multiple Choice Questions for preparation of ISTQB certification exam

(Quickly Review Your Skills before appearing for ISTQB Certification Exam)

Correct Answers to Earlier Questions - Q. 11 to Q 20 are at the end of this page:

Set of 10 Questions

Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?


Rule 1

Rule 2

size=2 face=Arial>

Rule 3

Rule 4




<21 yrs

21-29 yrs


> 50yrs



A or B

B. C or D

C or D













A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is 00.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 0 and excess is ,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is ,000.

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Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be implemented?

A. During test planning.
B. During test analysis.
C. During test execution.
D. When evaluating exit criteria

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained


A. ii, iv.
B. ii, iii.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iii.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 24: A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?

A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool?

i) Investigate the organisation's test process.
ii) Conduct a proof of concept.
iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time.
iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool.


A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. i, ii, iv.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?

A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test tools?

i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.


A. ii and iv
B. ii and iii
C. i and iv
D. i and iii

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to testing?

A. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.

B. Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has been produced.

C. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.

D. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests are designed early in response to review comments.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

A. To define when a test level is complete.
B. To determine when a test has completed.
C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
D. To determine whether a test has passed.

<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>

Q. 30: What determines the level of risk?

A. The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.
B. The probability that an adverse event will occur.
C. The amount of testing planned before release of a system.
D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

Correct Answer of the above Questions

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Correct Answers to Earlier Questions - Q. 11 to Q 20 are as under:

Question No.

Correct Answer

Q. 11


Q. 12


Q. 13


Q. 14


Q. 15


Q. 16


Q. 17


Q. 18


Q. 19


Q. 20



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