ISTQB Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam – Sample Paper: Q. 21 to 30
Deep study of this set of 80 questions shall be of great help in getting success in ISTQB CTAL Advanced Level Test Analyst & Technical Test Analyst Exam. All these questions are based upon ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level Syllabus V 2007.
Set of 10 Questions (Q. 21 to 30)
Correct Answers of earlier Q. 11 to 20 are at the end of this page:
Q. 21: Which of the statements are true about Test Strategy approaches?
I. Company can use analytical strategy (risk based) for their test strategy.
II. Company can use dynamic strategy for their test strategy.
III. Company may combine two or more test
strategies for their test activities.
IV. Company may not have a test strategy document.
A. I and II true
B. I III and III true
C. I, II, III and IV true
D. I, II, IV true
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 22: Master test plan may contain;
I. Items to be tested, out of scope test items
II. Testing schedule, budget
III. Entry and exit criteria for each level and relationship among each level
IV. Business value of testing
A. I, II true.
B. II, III true
C. I,III, IV true
D. I, II, III, IV true
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 23: Which of the statements are true about test documentation?
I. IEEE 829 standard contains test documentation template
II. Level test plan is a more detailed document, which has information about testing tasks and milestones.
III. Test plan structures may vary depending on the organization and project.
IV. Test strategy or test plan is not required for safety critical projects.
A. I,II,III true
B. I, II, IV true
C. II, III, IV true
D. III, IV true
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 24: Which of the following is correct about test progress monitoring?
I. According to ISQTB syllabus, Product Risks, Defects, Tests, Coverage and Confidence are 5 dimensions that can be used to monitor test progress.
II. Confidence is measured via surveys and questionnaires and outcome is subjective to the person responding.
Ill. Various metrics are used to measure the product risks, tests and coverage.
IV. One outcome of the progress monitoring could be to relax the test exit criteria.
A. All of the above is true
B. All of the above is false
C. I, II and III true.
D. I and II true.
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 25: Which of the statement are true about risk based testing;
I. All risks have equal weights / concerns.
II. The level of risk is influenced by likelihood of the risk and impact of the risk.
III. All risks must be mitigated.
IV. Main developer quitting, during the coding phase of the project can be a project risk.
A. I and II true
B. I and III true
C. II and IV true
D. III and IV true
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 26: Select the correct matching pair. According to the ISTQB Syllabus;
I. Risk Identification
II. Risk Analysis
III. Risk mitigation
a. Methods include: Expert interviews, checklists, brainstorming and past experience.
b. Technical factors include: Training issues, tools and technology, conflicts within the team
c. Business factors include: Damage to the image, loss of license, legal issues
A. I-a,II-b,III-c
B. I-a,II-b,III-b
C. I-b,II-c,III-a
D. I-c,II-b,III-a
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 27: According to the ISTQB syllabus, major ways to handle risks are:
I. Mitigate the risk through preventive measures.
II. Make contingency plans to reduce impact if risk occurs.
III. Transfer the risk to someone else to handle.
IV. Ignore and accept the risk.
A. I, II and III true
B. I, II and IV true
C. II, III, IV true
D. I, II, III, IV true
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 28: Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) should be applied;
A. In safety critical systems
B. Only on underground systems
C. Only on air traffic systems
D. In all systems
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 29: Innovative software solutions have adopted a new way of testing their software. Testers set up the test environment, scan the software and look for problems for about 3 hours every week on Mondays and Wednesdays (in addition to their normal test activities). They create a session sheet and record testers name, date and time started, issues found, task breakdown and defects found at the end. Then the test manager holds a meeting with the testers and reviews the session sheet. Manager asks the testers for their outlook, results, what happened during the testing and their feelings about past 3 hours.
What type of testing activity is described above?
A. Risk based testing
B. Exploratory Testing
C. State transition Testing
D. Decision Testing
<<<<<< =================== >>>>>>
Q. 30: A development house (DH) uses the V model for its projects. It delivers systems to the energy industry. In response to consumer demands, DH has been asked to create an online system for consumers to switch energy suppliers easily.
There are already offerings in the marketplace for this service, but DH thinks it can provide a service which is easier to use. It will request more detailed information on homes and occupant lifestyles in order to accurately predict likely bills per quarter, and will update users if a cheaper tariff becomes available.
For this new service, the specifications have been defined, code has been created, and system testing is about to start.
Which of the following could form part of the entry criteria into system testing?
I. 100 per cent decision coverage of all tariff calculations.
II. 100 per cent functional specification coverage of all household types.
III. Outstanding defects at integration testing highlighted.
IV. Test summary report for system testing produced.
V. Business requirements signed off.
A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I and III
D. I, III and IV
Explanation in favor of the correct Answer:
Option I, �100 per cent decision coverage of tariff calculations�, could form part of the exit criteria from unit and integration testing, which could then become part of the entry criteria for system testing. Therefore, this is a suitable option.
Option II, �100 per cent functional specification coverage�, would form part of the exit criteria from system testing. Therefore, this is unsuitable.
Option III, �outstanding defects highlighted at integration testing�, could form part of the exit criteria from integration testing, and thus form part of the entry criteria into system testing.
Option IV, �test summary report produced for system testing�, will be done at defined check points and at the end of system testing, not at the beginning. Therefore, this would not be part of the entry criteria into system testing.
Option V, �sign-off of the business requirements�, would form part of the entry criteria into acceptance testing, not system testing.
For getting the correct answer browse down to the end of this page
Read the Correct Answers of the above Questions
Access the Full Database of All Posts for ISTQB Advanced CTAL Test Analysts Exam Crash Course
Correct Answers to Earlier Questions – Q.11 to Q 20 are as under:
Question No. | Correct Answer |
Q. 11 | C |
Q. 12 | B |
Q. 13 | A |
Q. 14 | C |
Q. 15 | D |
Q. 16 | C |
Q. 17 | C |
Q. 18 | A |
Q. 19 | D |
Q. 20 | A |

An expert on R&D, Online Training and Publishing. He is M.Tech. (Honours) and is a part of the STG team since inception.
Could you please give explaination for answer to q. 25? The answaer provided is A, but acc to ISTQB Syllabus All risks are not equal in importance. I feel anwer is C
Reg Q 26, for option III, none of the criteria matches. How is B the right answer?
What you have said for and 25 and 26 is right. I don’t think these are the correct answers